johnpane

Remember, only newly purchased i-bonds get that fixed rate. Bonds previously purchased get the same fixed component they originally received: 0.4% for purchases in the most recent 6-month window, and 0% for several windows prior to that.

Fixed rate on new purchases will be 0.9% . Combined with a 3.4% inflation component, the full rate for May-Oct 2023 will be 4.3%.

It could, but would only apply to new purchases. Bonds purchased in 2021 through Oct 2022 have a fixed component rate of 0% for the life of the bond. Hence the term "fixed".

New bonds are predicted to be ~3.8% if the fixed component remains around 0.4%. If you bought when this thread started there was a 0% fixed component, in which case the new rate will be more like 3.38%. I am also inclined to get out after holding 3 months at 3.38% which will be forfeited. I think annualized rate over 21 months (since Nov '21 or subsequent 5 months) will work out to something like 6.6%.

Marty Whitman? Howard Marks? Distressed credit.

Look at TUA, and how it is described on pages 5-6 here.

IRS Pub 550: A wash sale occurs when you sell or trade stock or securities at a loss and within 30 days before or after the sale you: Buy substantially identical stock or securities, Acquire substantially identical stock or securities in a fully taxable trade, Acquire a contract or option to buy substantially identical stock or securities, or Acquire substantially identical stock for your individual retirement arrangement (IRA) or Roth IRA.

You may want to look into using the gift box feature, if you haven't already done so.

In order to maintain the $1.00 value, interest does not accrue to NAV but is held separately and distributed proportionately to the how long the shares were held. If a person redeems mid-month they still get the accrued interest. This is in contrast to, for example, a very short-term bond fund, where NAV does reflect accumulated interest and there is no partial-month interest payment upon redemption.

What did investors in the Japan stock market think in 1990?

Your puts were exercised Friday, giving you a sale of ARKK at $100 and leaving you short 500 shares. Your broker must have covered that short Monday -- maybe you can't borrow ARKK.

Felix Zulauf mentions the TGA in today's Barron's: Yet, he predicts lower long-term rates:

You bought stock in step 3, within 30 days before this sale. It is as simple as that.

An article, written 6 years ago and not attributed to any author, claims that an unnamed "partner at Deloitte" "suggested" a 3 step process. (Note the three steps do not include selling the call, so essentially amount to doubling down. It is apparently the author -- not the claimed Deloitte partner --who mentions selling the call to harvest the loss and does not say when). This could be completely made up, or the person might have retracted the suggestion. You can't believe everything you read on the internet.

Selling a call you hold is not "writing a call", thus not "writing a covered call", thus not "writing a qualified covered call". Your whole argument rests on a section of Pub 550 that does not apply to the situation.