fwallstreet Posted July 27, 2014 Share Posted July 27, 2014 I've always wondered how he arrived at 6% for being the hurdle rate to use after consolidating the early partnerships. But I can't remember reading anything that outlined his thinking. If someone knows or, preferably, could point me to a primary source detailing his reasoning, I'd appreciate the info. Is it based on historical gov't bond yields up to or from the late 50s? Or equity market returns? Thanks in advance Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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