"My point was that Spain shouldn't be tossing around blame, when it's blatantly obvious that Spain's problems, and most definitely Greece's problems, were due to the culture, excesses and reliance on social benefits within their own countries. "
"No one asked Ireland, Spain, Portugal or Greece to spend billions in excess of what could be supported by their GDP."
I disagree with both of these statements with respect to Spain. Spain, in my mind, is not like Greece at all. They didnt use derivatives to hide their debts, they dont have the same level of corrupt culture, and their debt/gdp is around half of Greece right now. On the eve of the crisis (2007) Spain ran a budget surplus and had a debt to GDP ratio below 40%. Yes, they had a huge housing bubble and no one "forced" their population to buy too expensive homes. But, house ownership in Spain is one of the highest in the world at +80% and over 70% of household net worth is in homes. Loans in Spain are not non-recourse. Given that Spain had one of the largest real estate collapses in europe, it is no wonder that the economy was thrown into a "balance sheet" recession as most individual's balance sheets are impaired and cant be fixed by foreclosure. 28% of all homes built from 2001-2007 are vacant. Their government was just as blind during the build up of the real estate bubble up as was the US government. Unemployment is currently 25% (and over 50% for youth) and they don't have their own currency to devalue or use as a lender of last resort. What government could have fiscally survived a collapse like that without dramatically running a deficit? And what evidence is there that austerity applied to those conditions has any chance of working?