Tommm50 Posted June 22, 2009 Posted June 22, 2009 I must be incredibly naive but isn't the function of the market maker on the NYSE to provide an orderly market in the stock? How do less than 18,000 shares move a stock with millions of shares outstanding by over 4%?? Particularly on a day when AM Best affirms Fairfax's ratings, cites all the improvements (cash, commuted reinsurance treaties, cleanup of C&F's property cat exposure, etc.) and declares the outlook stable. This happens all the time with Fairfax stock.
Parsad Posted June 22, 2009 Posted June 22, 2009 It's weighted, so if you have say a block of 15,000 institutional shares selling at an ask that is 5-6% lower (need to get the block sold), and the rest of the shares (remaining 3,000) average out to a ask price of just 1-2% lower, you get the 4%-5% drop that the market maker has to set the floor at. So that damn institution probably deserves most of the blame! ;D Cheers!
watsa_is_a_randian_hero Posted June 22, 2009 Posted June 22, 2009 I must be incredibly naive but isn't the function of the market maker on the NYSE to provide an orderly market in the stock? How do less than 18,000 shares move a stock with millions of shares outstanding by over 4%?? Particularly on a day when AM Best affirms Fairfax's ratings, cites all the improvements (cash, commuted reinsurance treaties, cleanup of C&F's property cat exposure, etc.) and declares the outlook stable. This happens all the time with Fairfax stock. Yeah I've been getting annoyed lately. Wrote June 250 puts for $3.5 in income and wrote July 250 puts for an additional $7 in income per share. At least ORH is going up. When it was near $40 I was selling Aug $35 puts and Jun $40 puts and took all of the proceeds to buy Aug $45 and Aug $50 calls. Selling $35 1 put contract generated enough income to buy 1 $45 call and 1 $50 call. Puts are priced at a black-scholes implied vol of 41% while the calls are priced at a black-scholes implied vol of 31%.
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