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Berkshire Intrinsic Value Calculator question on discount rate


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That strikes me as odd.  In my IV calculation I would pay 100% for BRK's float (more likely over 100%) given that it has a negative cost. I would pay 100% for investments that are included in BRK's book value and I would only discount operating earnings of BRK's subs, perhaps for as long as 15 years. I think that is the way WEB would suggest we go about it ourselves, no?

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