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Posted

I would imagine it is due to subsidiary earnings, which the discount rate applies to, being only a portion of the IV calculation. 

 

I suspect the equity investments are a major part of the calculation and are valued at 100%.

Posted

That strikes me as odd.  In my IV calculation I would pay 100% for BRK's float (more likely over 100%) given that it has a negative cost. I would pay 100% for investments that are included in BRK's book value and I would only discount operating earnings of BRK's subs, perhaps for as long as 15 years. I think that is the way WEB would suggest we go about it ourselves, no?

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