scorpioncapital Posted June 18, 2009 Posted June 18, 2009 Does anybody know why if I enter 10% discount rate vs. 50% discount rate, the IV of the B shares changes by about $1000/share? http://www.creativeacademics.com/finance/IV.html I can't believe that a 50% discount rate vs 5-10% makes a difference of only $1000 per B share.
returnonmycapital Posted June 18, 2009 Posted June 18, 2009 I would imagine it is due to subsidiary earnings, which the discount rate applies to, being only a portion of the IV calculation. I suspect the equity investments are a major part of the calculation and are valued at 100%.
returnonmycapital Posted June 18, 2009 Posted June 18, 2009 That strikes me as odd. In my IV calculation I would pay 100% for BRK's float (more likely over 100%) given that it has a negative cost. I would pay 100% for investments that are included in BRK's book value and I would only discount operating earnings of BRK's subs, perhaps for as long as 15 years. I think that is the way WEB would suggest we go about it ourselves, no?
arbitragr Posted June 19, 2009 Posted June 19, 2009 I find it unusual that you would use a DCF or a variant of it (Gordon growth model) to value BRK. Never seen that before on a professional level.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now