Redskin212 Posted February 19, 2009 Posted February 19, 2009 Another twist to Fairfax's lawsuit http://www.globefund.com/servlet/story/GFGAM.20090219.RFAIRFAX19/GFStory/
tooskinneejs Posted February 19, 2009 Posted February 19, 2009 From the article: "Fairfax wants Bill Holland to testify in connection with its bitter lawsuit..." Is the lawsuit bitter? Maybe, maybe not. But what difference does it make and why do reporters feel the need to editorialize in their news articles? Why not just say "in connection with its lawsuit"? Maybe I'm being oversensitive, but this kind of stuff bothers me.
Crip1 Posted February 19, 2009 Posted February 19, 2009 Tooskinny, Perhaps you are being a little sensitive. I do not see anything malicious here by the reporter, but if you are annoyed by a stupid comment, then this would fit the bill. How often does one see a non-bitter $6B lawsuit? The statement is akin to a diver reported to be jumping into the wet water or the hockey player cracking his head on the hard ice. -Crip
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