"In an arbitrage situation, they might buy $100m of GM bonds that pay a spread of 200bps and sell CDS credit protection on $100m that generates an income of 220bps - thereby keeping 20bps/year."
Hi dwy000,
Great posts, and thank you for your insight. I am trying to understand the comment above, and have a question about the comment you made earlier.
1. Trying to understand the cashflows from above which results in net 20bps.
On the bank's long bond position, they receive 200bps, and on the bank's short CDS position, don't they receive 220bps? Isn't this a net receipt of 420bps to the bank, rather 20bps?
2. Is the above arbitrage trade a riskless trade?
I see risk if the GM bonds default - the long bond position will lose its value of $100mn and the short CDS credit protection position could potentially lose another $100mn as they have to pay out to the CDS credit protection buyer. So that would mean that the bank would have net exposure of $200mn?
Not sure if my understanding is correct of the arbitrage trade as you outline above ... Thank you for your help advance in understanding the arbitrage trade.