vinod1 Posted February 7, 2011 Share Posted February 7, 2011 Has any one understood the rationale for AIG warrents issues to stock holders? These are issued only to private stockholders (at 0.53 warrents per 1 stock) so the US Govt with 92.5% stake is not getting any warrents. So it effectively means that the ownership of private stockholders is being increased at the expense of US Govt. To me it seems a scenario something like this seems to have happened: The US govt seems to be making quite a bit of money on AIG and much better than say in Freddie/Fannie or on the Banks and this is a backdoor way to reduce some of the US Govt profits and pass on some of the better than expected showing "profits" back to shareholders. I cannot think of any other reason for the issuance of the warrents. Vinod Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
twacowfca Posted February 7, 2011 Share Posted February 7, 2011 As I look at the supply imbalance developing for AIG stock plus the fact that they have sold most of their best businesses, I get the feeling that it would be unwise to touch them even with a ten foot pole. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
vinod1 Posted February 7, 2011 Author Share Posted February 7, 2011 As I look at the supply imbalance developing for AIG stock plus the fact that they have sold most of their best businesses, I get the feeling that it would be unwise to touch them even with a ten foot pole. Thanks for the caution. I just digging into this in a little more detail as it is very intriguing due to size of Berkowitz's bet and no obvious undervaluation. Vinod Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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